Homosexuality did not appears in the bible in any place

 Many times we get carried away by opinions or speeches that we don't really know where they come from, and where they try to take their ideology, studying the origin or nature of something without stopping to think twice if that origin is wrongly taken or wrongly analyzed. Due to establishing a pattern that only reflects a thoughtlessness on a subject, it is curious that especially in the United States, Poland, Russia, in the Arab countries and in some European circle, religious ideas are still placed before individual rights, or when establishing individual rights, and that the persons in charge of preserving human rights are blindly carried away by religious ideas before putting the facts and principles of individual freedoms and rights, which is the beginning of every principle for the life.

To write this I had to make sure not to get lost in so much data and clarify as much as possible the approach I wanted to give to the writing.
First of all I am not a particularly religious person, or in any case I would be a spiritual person, not religious.
Second, in order to find a text and the security of making it as clear as possible, you should not let yourself be influenced by your own ideology, but only clarify the data with truthful data.
That is why I write here how after years of compiling data on homosexuality in the bible, nothing at all has yet been found that refers to homosexuality.
Opinions are always going to be opinions, but clarified data simply reveals the nature of the facts.
After reviewing all the original texts, not the texts of the later variants, I found this ...

As for the claim that Paul condemned homosexuality in
1 Corinthians 6:9-11, that can be overturned rapidly, as the Greeks (and the original text was written in Greek by all accounts) had a term for homosexuality: androkoitēs (it actually means
“men in bed” { άντρες στο κρεβάτι } and has no sexual connotation by itself; the ancient Greek world found nothing wrong with men sleeping together, and if sex did transpire, it was considered common and ignored) but the word used in Corinthians is arsenokoitēs (ἀρσενοκοίτης) and it means “wrong doers” such as “lawless and disobedient” as found in
1 Timothy 1:9-10: ειδως τουτο οτι δικαιω νομος ου κειται ανομοις δε και ανυποτακτοις ασεβεσιν και αμαρτωλοις ανοσιοις και βεβηλοις πατρολωαις και μητρολωαις ανδροφονοις πορνοις αρσενοκοιταις ανδραποδισταις ψευσταις επιορκοις και ει τι ετερον τη υγιαινουση διδασκαλια αντικειται...
which is a clear reference to the behavior of prostitutes and criminals of that time, not towards homosexuality.

Paul's First Letter to the Corinthians uses malakos in the plural to refer to persons. This is commonly translated as "effeminate", as in the King James Version, which has: "Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God."

But its meaning from The Apostle Paul - AD 55 - Greek - malakoi, means , "softness", "weakliness", or "weak" , not effeminate, (which is an english later translation).

In 1892, “homosexual” appears for the first time, in C.G. Chaddock’s translation of Krafft-Ebing’s Psychopathia Sexualis, {R. v. Krafft-Ebing, Psychopathia sexualis : mit besonderer Berücksichtigung der conträren Sexualempfindung : eine klinisch-forensische Studie (6. verm. und theilweise umgearb. Aufl.) Stuttgart : Ferdinand Enke, 1891}, but then H. Havelock Ellis was scornful, noting sarcastically, that the word “”Homosexual’ [being judged as] a barbarously hybrid word, and I claim no responsibility for it.” [Havelock Ellis, H. (1897). Studies in the Psychology of Sex, vol. 1: “Sexual Inversion.” London: University Press]. The word “homosexual” was not used until 1912 in the USA and it did NOT apply to any biblical reference.